To provide an example, look at $\\langle 1\\rangle$ under the binary. To be honest, my justification for this assertion was a somewhat crude dimensional analysis of the sort used in physics and. It is just what you want it to be, as long as it makes sense mathematically.
Endless Love Korean Poster
I am a little confused about how a cyclic group can be infinite. But for an infinite hotel, it is possible for both to be true at the same time (indeed the second statement is always true for an infinite. I know that $\\infty/\\infty$ is not generally defined.
However, if we have 2 equal infinities divided by each other, would it be 1?
